Free NCLEX Practice Questions

21. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?

A: Following surgery

B: Upon admit

C: Within 48 hours of discharge

D: Preoperative discussion

22. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

23. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

24. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

25. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

A: 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min. , 100/70 mm Hg

B: 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg

C: 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg

D: 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

26. When you are taking a patient’s history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

A: Elavil

B: Calcitonin

C: Pergolide

D: Verapamil

27. Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?

A: Campylobacterial infection

B: Legionnaire’s disease

C: Pneumonia

D: Multiple Sclerosis

28. A patient’s chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Decreased HR

B: Paresthesias

C: Muscle weakness of the extremities

D: Migranes

29. A patient’s chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Vomiting

B: Extreme Thirst

C: Weight gain

D: Acetone breath smell

30. A patient’s chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Increased appetite

B: Vomiting

C: Fever

D: Poor tolerance of light

31. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Yersinia pestis

B: Helicobacter pyroli

C: Vibrio cholera

D: Hemophilus aegyptius

32. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Borrelia burgdorferi

B: Streptococcus pyrogens

C: Bacilus anthracis

D: Enterococcus faecalis

33. A fragile 87 year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over last 2 weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

34. A 84 year-old male has been loosing mobility and gaining weight over the last 2 months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

35. A 20 year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

36. A 28 year old male has been found wandering around in a confused pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

37. A mother is inquiring about her child’s ability to potty train. Which of the following factors is the most important aspect of toilet training?

A: The age of the child

B: The child ability to understand instruction.

C: The overall mental and physical abilities of the child.

D: Frequent attempts with positive reinforcement.

38. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?

A: This too shall pass.

B: Take the child immediately to the ER

C: Contact the Poison Control Center quickly

D: Give the child syrup of ipecac

39. A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. Which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

A: Gluteus maximus

B: Gluteus minimus

C: Vastus lateralis

D: Vastus medialis

40. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4 year-old boy who is non-verbal. This child does not have on any identification. What should the nurse do?

A: Contact the provider

B: Ask the child to write their name on paper.

C: Ask a co-worker about the identification of the child.

D: Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name.

Answer Key 21-40.

21. (B) Discharge education begins upon admit.

22. (B) Initiative vs. guilt- 3-6 years old

23. (A) Trust vs. Mistrust- 12-18 months old

24. (D) Intimacy vs. isolation- 18-35 years old

25. (B) HR and Respirations are slightly increased. BP is down.

26. (A) Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant.

27. (D) Erythromycin is used to treat conditions A-C.

28. (D) Answer choices A-C were symptoms of acute hyperkalemia.

29. (C) Weight loss would be expected.

30. (A) Loss of appetite would be expected.

31. (D) Choice A is linked to Plague, Choice B is linked to peptic ulcers, Choice C is linked to Cholera.

32. (A) Choice B is linked to Rheumatic fever, Choice C is linked to Anthrax, Choice D is linked to Endocarditis.

33. (D) A CT scan would be performed for further investigation of the hemiparesis.

34. (C) Weight gain and poor temperature tolerance indicate something may be wrong with the thyroid function.

35. (C) Blood cultures would be performed to investigate the fever and rash symptoms.

36. (A) With a history of diabetes, the first response should be to check blood sugar levels.

37. (C) Age is not the greatest factor in potty training. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child is the most important factor.

38. (C) The poison control center will have an exact plan of action for this child.

39. (C) Vastus lateralis is the most appropriate location.

40. (D) In this case you are able to determine the name of the child by the father’s statement. You should not withhold the medication from the child following identification.

Usually, NCLEX scores are sent out 2-6 weeks after the NCLEX test. Each state board is different with score reporting. Don’t call the state boards for a score report.

If you do not pass the NCLEX don’t lose hope. Thousands of good nurses have missed a passing score by a few questions. Any given day a good student can make a few mistakes. You will be required to wait 3 months to retest for the NCLEX.

If you don’t pass the NCLEX ask yourself the following questions.

1. Did I know the material on the NCLEX?
2. Did I feel comfortable with testing format?
3. Was there something else going on in my life that was a distracter?
4. Did I feel like I was guessing on the NCLEX test?
5. Did I give each question my best effort?
6. Did I focus on the practical and not book knowledge regarding patient care?
7. Did I prepare for the minimum number of questions and not the maximum on the NCLEX test?

Use the above questions to improve your focus for your NCLEX preparation. Hundreds if not thousands of nursing students have never gone back to take the NCLEX test the second time. The NCLEX is just another hurdle in a series of qualifying requirements to become a nurse. Don’t lose hope and become a better nurse by pursing knowledge that will help you pass the NCLEX.

1. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. Which of the following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A: Coumadin

B: Finasteride

C: Celebrex

D: Catapress

E: Habitrol

F: Clofazimine

2. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. The history indicates photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A: Cipro

B: Sulfonamide

C: Noroxin

D: Bactrim

E: Accutane

F: Nitrodur

3. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration?

A: Sulfasalazine

B: Levodopa

C: Phenolphthalein

D: Aspirin

4. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents?

A: Corgard

B: Humulin (injection)

C: Urokinase

D: Epogen (injection)

5. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

A: IgA

B: IgD

C: IgE

D: IgG

6. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?

A: Immediately see a social worker

B: Start prophylactic AZT treatment

C: Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment

D: Seek counseling

7. A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Atherosclerosis

B: Diabetic nephropathy

C: Autonomic neuropathy

D: Somatic neuropathy

8. You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Multiple sclerosis

B: Anorexia nervosa

C: Bulimia

D: Systemic sclerosis

9. A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Diverticulosis

B: Hypercalcaemia

C: Hypocalcaemia

D: Irritable bowel syndrome

10. Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

A: RH positive, RH positive

B: RH positive, RH negative

C: RH negative, RH positive

D: RH negative, RH negative

11. A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

A: A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

B: The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

C: Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

D: The effects of PKU are reversible.

12. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

A: Onset of pulmonary edema

B: Metabolic alkalosis

C: Respiratory alkalosis

D: Parkinson’s disease type symptoms

13. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

A: Let others know about the patient’s deficits.

B: Communicate with your supervisor your patient safety concerns.

C: Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

D: Provide a secure environment for the patient.

14. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

A: Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

B: Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

C: Cough following bronchodilator utilization

D: Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.

15. A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

A: Slow pulse rate

B: Weight gain

C: Decreased systolic pressure

D: Irregular WBC lab values

16. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome?

A: Simian crease

B: Brachycephaly

C: Oily skin

D: Hypotonicity

17. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

A: Streptokinase

B: Atropine

C: Acetaminophen

D: Coumadin

18. A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acids?”

A: Green vegetables and liver

B: Yellow vegetables and red meat

C: Carrots

D: Milk

19. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?

A: S. pneumonia

B: H. influenza

C: N. meningitis

D: Cl. difficile

20. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.

A: The life span of RBC is 45 days.

B: The life span of RBC is 60 days.

C: The life span of RBC is 90 days.

D: The life span of RBC is 120 days.

Answer Key

1. (A) and (B) are both contraindicated with pregnancy.

2. (F) All of the others have can cause photosensitivity reactions.

3. (D) All of the others can cause urine discoloration.

4. (A) Corgard could be removed from the refigerator.

5. (D) IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier.

6. (B) AZT treatment is the most critical innervention.

7. (C) Autonomic neuropathy can cause inability to urinate.

8. (B) All of the clinical signs and systems point to a condition of anorexia nervosa.

9. (B) Hypercalcaemia can cause polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion.

10. (C) Rho gam prevents the production of anti-RH antibodies in the mother that has a Rh positive fetus.

11. (D) The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life.

12. (D) Aspirin overdose can lead to metabolic acidosis and cause pulmonary edema development.

13. (D) This patient’s safety is your primary concern.

14. (C) The bronchodilator will allow a more productive cough.

15. (B) Weight gain is associated with CHF and congenital heart deficits.

16. (C) The skin would be dry and not oily.

17. (A) Streptokinase is a clot busting drug and the best choice in this situation.

18. (A) Green vegetables and liver are a great source of folic acid.

19. (D) Cl. difficile has not been linked to meningitis.

20. (D) RBC’s last for 120 days in the body.

As a practical matter, a foreign nurse in the U.S. can start her immigration application and receive employment earlier than a nurse residing outside the U.S.

The application begins by an employer filing immigration petition (Form I-140) to the Bureau of Citizenship and Immigration Service, BCIS (former Immigration and Naturalization Service). The application should include documents listed above and other supporting documents as well as filing fee. To speed up the process, BCIS allows concurrent filing of application for adjustment of status (Form I-485) and employment authorization (Form I-765) for both the nurse and her spouse and unmarried children under 21. It may take at least over a year, depending on where the nurse resides, for the nurse to receive the approval of adjustment and later the green card. Concurrent filing of the above application will allow the nurse to receive employment authorization hence start to work while waiting for approval of the adjustment.

For the nurse who lives outside the U.S., the process begins when the employer submits the immigration petition (I-140). Upon approval of the petition, BCIS will send the approval notice to National Visa Center (NVC). If there is no backlog for immigration quota, NVC will forward a packet of requested information to the nurse or her attorney. The nurse sends in the information to the American consulate and awaits appointment for physical examination, fingerprints, and interview. Upon successful completion of the interview, the nurse, her spouse, and minor children will receive their immigrant visas.

The requested information, for visa application and interview, by American consulate varies slightly from country to country. So does the interview procedure. This is particularly true after the event of September 11. Basically, the nurse is required to provide the following documents:
1. Birth certificate
2. Marriage certificate when applicable
3. Divorce or death certificate of spouse when applicable
4. Medical examination
5. Proof of job offer,
6. Financial information of the employer
7. Police clearance
8. Application
9. Application fees
10. Valid passport
11. Photographs
12. Visa screen certificate

VISASCREEN CERTIFICATE (VSC) AND LICENSING

The VSC is issued to the nurse by International Commission on Health Professionals (ICHP) to certify that her education and license meets the U. S. standard; that she possesses the level of competency in oral and written English required to practice nursing; that she has passed the nursing examination given by CGFNS.

RN State Licensing Boards: Contact Information And Web Sites

NCLEX Examination
The Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools (CGFNS)

LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENT

Unless the nurse received her nursing instruction in the U.S. United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, Ireland, and Canada, she needs to show her language proficiency by taking one of the following examinations:
TOEFL (test of English as foreign language) IELTS (International English Language Testing Service), and TOEIC (Test of English in International Communications).

The passing scores for the nurse to be certified by CGFNS:TOEFL: paper based 540; computer based 207; TSE (test of spoken English) 50; TWE (test of written English) 4.0IELTS: written (academic module)6.5; spoken band 7.0
source:nclexguide4filipinos

NCLEX Guide
by Geminelle_RN
This will facilitate the licensure to CALIFORNIA for filipino nurses who would prefer to take the NCLEX®. And not take CGFNS.
OVERVIEW

The National Council License Exam (NCLEX®) is a test that each nurse must pass in order to obtain a license to practice nursing in the state where they will work. In the United States, licensing is under the authority of each individual state, not the federal government. Nurses cannot apply directly to the NCLEX®, but must apply through one of the states.

State requirements for foreign educated nurse

Each state has unique laws and regulations for Registered Nurses. Differences are apparent between states in requirements for foreign educated nurses. For example, California and Nevada have very different requirements . California does not require that a foreign educated nurse have passed the CGFNS exam in order to apply for licensure. California does require that the nurse undergo a credential review by specialists within their agency. This means that foreign nurses must have their transcripts from their nursing school sent directly to the California Board of Nursing as well as documents verifying their license from the licensing authority in their country. Unfortunately, California will not accept the Visa Screen by the CGFNS or any other credential evaluation. They will review a copy of a credential certificate from another source, but California still must complete their own review of the transcript. Since the immigration law specifically requires the Visa Screen, foreign nurses applying for licensure in California, must be credentialed twice, and have the forms and transcripts sent to both California and the CGFNS. CGFNS will not accept the California Board of Nursing Credential Review. Neither California or the CGFNS will recognize their respective credential review, leaving the foreign nurse with two sets of fees, the potential for delays when documents are not received, etc. The most common cause for delays in the completion of the credentialing by both agencies is not receiving the required documents from the licensing agency and also from the nursing school in a timely manner. Note: As of this July 2002, California is now requiring the foreign educated nurse applicant to provide a valid social security number. California will only issue a temporary license without the social security number. Unfortunately, the INS will not accept a temporary license to file the I-140 and/or adjustment of status. As long as this situation exists, I would not recommend foreign educated nurses apply in California for purposes of filing the I-140 unless they are also a CGFNS test passer. If they are a CGFNS test passer with a pass on TOEFL, the I-140 petition can be filed. Then if a concurrent adjustment of status and EAD is filed, the nurse can apply for the social security card after the EAD is received in about 90 days. Then....with the social security card, the nurse can obtain the full license. However, with the temp license and the social security card, the nurse can begin to work.

Application forms from various agencies can be difficult to complete. Some of the applications forms are written in language that native speakers, find confusing, let alone someone who has English as a second language. In addition, when the foreign educated nurse, who is residing abroad tries to phone these licensing agencies, they often get busy signals as well as long waits. This can be expensive and frustrating.
Taking the NCLEX® in Guam or Saipan

Some Philippine nurses who have passed the CGFNS exam as well as those who have not taken the CGFNS exam, will seek to take the NCLEX® in either Gaum or Saipan or will obtain a US Tourist Visa and travel to the US to sit for the NCLEX® exam. Saipan does not currently require a US tourist visa for Philippine nurses traveling to take NCLEX® and staying only 3 days. However, the test site can only handle 6 nurses taking NCLEX® per day. Guam does require a US tourist visa. However, with the actual paper approving the nurse to take the NCLEX® in Guam, the US Embassy has in the past, been approving nurses for tourist visa to travel to Gaum for NCLEX®. Guam can handle 12 or more NCLEX® test takers each day. The NCLEX® organization is in a one year long process of changing from the Chauncy company that run the test sites. This might mean improvements in test site capacity. It also may result in other international test sites being opened in such cities as Manila. As of August 16, 2002, new test sites and phone numbers for Guam and Saipan. Please read this article, written by Meladee M. Stankus, President of Nurse Immigration USA. Click Here For More. as well as the NCS Pearson VUE web site.

The CGFNS exam is becoming less attractive to US employers

Applying for the CGFNS exam, waiting two months for the exam and obtaining the results two to three months after the exam, can take a nurse up to 6 months or even one year to complete. Test results take so long to be mailed to the nurse, that the deadline for the next exam will have passed. This means that a failure to achieve a score of 400, and the nurse must apply for the next exam. Then that nurse will have a another one year wait for the results of that exam. CGFNS exam results are not published/mailed to the nurse until after the expiration date for application the next exam. In addition, the CGFNS exam is expensive and it is only given three times per year. Last year, in Manila , Philippines, several thousand Philippine nurses completed the CGFNS exam. CGFNS does not publish the pass /fail rate for various countries. Current CGFNS application test fees are $295.00 However, one can estimate that Philippine nurses are projected by this writer to be providing at least $3,000,000 annually in revenue to the CGFNS for exams. Additional fees of $325.00 are paid for Visa Screen to the ICHP, a division of the CGFNS. If only 2000 Visa Screen application are sent from the Philippines annually, a very conservative estimate, that would represent $625,000 of additional revenue provided by Philippine nurses to the CGFNS.
Although, the CGFNS exam certificate will allow for the filing of the I-140,with an US employee sponsor, some US employees will require that the nurse pass the NCLEX® prior to departing and arriving in the US to start employment. At one point in the past, the CGFNS web site asserted that the foreign educated nurses who obtained a passing score on the CGFNS exam, was predicted have an 85% probability of passing NCLEX®. However, US employers are learning this is questionable. In fact, the published statistics from the NCLEX® indicated that all foreign educated nurses pass NCLEX® at a rate of about 40%. The CGFNS is a "paper and pencil" examination. The CGFNS exam may have a multiple choice question on a subject. The NCLEX® is a test taken on a computer and claims to evaluate the test takers ability in critical thinking on the various subjects. The nurse test taker must be able to identify the implications of signs and symptoms and what action is required of the nurse. The NCLEX® requires knowledge of the US nursing role as well as the role of personnel such as LPN’s. This will be a challenge to a foreign educated nurse who has not worked in US hospital.

The NCLEX® is a Computer Adaptive Test. The NCLEX® is unique test of experience which uses advanced computer programming. This allows the test to increase levels of difficulty for the individual test, depending upon correct and incorrect responses to various questions. For example, if an exam question on cardiac pharmacology is missed, the test can select other questions in that subject for that individual test taker. With this approach, each set of questions will vary amongst different test takers. In addition, the test program is scoring and evaluating after each question. A test taker who gives incorrect responses to a certain number of questions, will find the computer shuts down with a message that the test is over. Conversely, the test taker who has answered sufficient number of questions correctly ….will have the same experience. In both cases, the test taker is not told of the reason the test is "complete" and only finds out when official test results are available. This can result in a few sleepless nights for all individuals. Some will get the good news that they passed, others will get bad news.
Hospitals are discovering that the nurses who take NCLEX® after passing the CGFNS ,may not pass NCLEX®. Once the nurse has not passed the NCLEX®, the nurse must wait 90 days before retaking and about $200.00 in additional fees must be paid . US hospital employers are quickly learning to require a thorough and specialized NCLEX® review course prior to the NCLEX® examination. Some are actually requiring the foreign nurse hire who has passed the CGFNS exam, to obtain NCLEX® in Guam or Saipan prior to arrival in US, This is seen of late in advertising by foreign nurse recruitment agencies literature and web sites, that seek to provide foreign nurses to US employers. I believe that when NCLEX® is given internationally, that very few nurses will seek to take the CGFNS exam. There is an increasing trend for US employers to pay the fees for all test and requirements for foreign nurse hires. This is due to the competition for qualified nurses. If the employer has to choose between the CGFNS exam or the NCLEX®, employers will choose NCLEX®. Obviously, the employer will then have a known "RN" product. Those nurses who are currently arriving with the green card, and have only the CGFNS exam and must take NCLEX® in US, are facing delays until they can assume RN work. This foreign educated nurse may only work in a limited capacity because of these delays. If the nurse passes NCLEX® the first time, this delay may only be months. If the first exam is not passed, that delay may be months or years.

Licensure by Endorsement

Those nurses who apply to take the NCLEX® exam through a state like Arizona that does not have a requirement of having passed the CGFNS exam, may intend to apply for endorsement into another state that does require the CGFNS. Thereby, the foreign educated nurse who has not passed the CGFNS exam, first applies to a state like Arizona. Then, after obtaining the Arizona license, seeks endorsement into this other state. Not all states provide for endorsement and the applicant must research each state and the exact requirements for endorsement.
Source: nclexguide4filipinos.

NCLEX GUIDE for Filipinos


NCLEX California Guide
(For Foreign Nurses)


~Step-by-step Procedure ~

~Getting started ~

How to get application form:

1. Please visit http://www.rn.ca.gov

2. Click the Licensure and Examination. (on the left side)

3. Then, Click the option Licensure by examination.

4. Lastly, click the Application for Licensure by Examination (PDF file)

5. Print the form.

My remarks:

I suggest that you print pages 1-22 only because pages 23-24 are just list of review centers in the USA, which is not applicable for all of us. Read carefully all the instruction. I suggest that you start processing your application since California NCLEX processing takes more or less 6 months to process.

How to acquire and accomplish the Fingerprint card:

MANUAL FINGERPRINT PROCESS

1. E mail the Board of Registered Nursing: Webmasterbrn@dca.ca.gov

2. Your e-mail must include “request for fingerprint card” as email subject, your name and your complete address (don’t forget your zip code).

3. Start by emailing them and request for Fingerprint card so that they will send you 2pcs of FBI fingerprint card.

4. The fingerprint card is expected to arrive 2-3weeks after they received your email.

5. Bring it to National Bureau of Investigation (NBI).


How to apply for Request for Transcript and Breakdown for Educational Program
for International Nursing Programs

1. Go to your school where you graduated and bring your two forms:
a. Request for Transcript
b. Breakdown for Educational Program for International Nursing Program

2. Pay for Certification (P100 for Emilio Aguinaldo Graduates)

3. Then proceed to the Nursing Department and present the following:
a. Official receipt
b. Photocopy Related Learning Experience (RLE) Record
c. Original or photocopy Transcript of Records (I suggest give the original.)
d. Request for Transcript and Breakdown for Educational Program for International Nursing Program forms

4. Wait for the release. This may take more or less 5 working days.

5. If your forms are accomplished, have your papers authenticated, this is if you did not submit original TOR and RLE Records. Proceed to the cashier pay for Authentication Fee (P25 per pages-EAC).

6. Then submit the forms and the receipts to the registrars office.

My remarks: Don’t forget to ask for envelope! Everything must be authenticated!

And you’re done!!!

Examination Application Requirements Checklist

Applicants must provide the following:

 Appropriate fee

 Completed Application for Licensure by Examination

 Completed fingerprints card

 One recent 2” x 2” passport-type picture

 Request For Transcript Form completed and forwarded directly from the nursing school with certified transcript

 Breakdown of Educational Program for International Nursing Programs form

 Submit a copy of your license or diploma

 Photocopy of your license card

 Board rating from PRC, and board certificate for foreign purposes(P75)



Board Address and Website


Mailing address: Board of registered Nursing
P. O. Box 944210
Sacramento, CA 94244-2100

Street Address for overnight
or in-person delivery: Board of Registered Nursing
400 R Street, Suite 4030
Sacramento, Ca 95814-6239

Web site: http://www.rn.ca.gov



Application Fee Schedule

Application for licensure by examination only

Application fee----------$ 75.00
One Fingerprint card-----$ 32.00
TOTAL FEE $107.00

Source: nclex guide for filipinos

1.)Prothrombin is a ____ globulin and is produced by the _____.

Alpha, Kidney
Alpha, Liver
Beta, Kidney
Beta, Liver

2.)The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the ___ artery.

Marginal
LVC
RVC
LAD

3.)Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the _______ next.

Coronary Sinus
Left Ventricle
Right Ventricle
Left Atrium

4.)If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location?

Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process
On the right side of the sternum
On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint
On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib

5.)Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole?

Increased aortic pressure
Increased ventricular volume
Dup heart sound
P wave

6.)Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole?

Increased aortic pressure
Increased ventricular volume
Lub heart sound
T wave

7.)The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with _______ ______ cells

Simple squamous
Stratified squamous
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium

8.)Angiotension can directly cause the release of ____ from the adrenal cortex.

Renin
Aldosterone
Calcitonin
Thyroxine

9.)Cardiac output is the product of ____ and ____.

HR and Disastolic pressure
HR and Stroke Volume
HR and EF
Diastolic and Systolic pressure

10.)Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing _____ _____.

Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle

11.)Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch?

Common carotid
Brachiocephalic
Right Subclavian
Thoracic

12.)The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the ____ ____ artery.

Left subclavian
Right subclavian
Left common carotid
Right thoracic artery

13.)Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic, hepatic and gastric arteries?

Left sacral artery
Celiac artery
Suprarenal artery
Phrenic artery

14.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta?

Mediastinal artery
Renal artery
Bronchial artery
Posterior intercostals artery

15.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta?

Phrenic artery
Common iliac artery
Gonadal artery
Mediastinal artery

16.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery?

Superficial pudendal arteries
Deep external pudendal arteries
Superficial circumflex iliac artery
Deep circumflex iliac artery

17.)Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein?

Inferior mesenteric vein
Splenic vein
Left gastric vein
Subclavian vein

18.)Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the ____ artery.

Basilar
Common Carotid
MCA
PCA

19.)Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____.

Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure
The inverse of the blood pressure
Half of the systolic pressure

20.)_____ nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart.

Accelerator
Phrenic
Thoracic
Gastric


Answer Key:

Question 1
The right answer was Alpha, Liver.

Question 2
The right answer was Marginal.

Question 3
The right answer was Coronary Sinus.

Question 4
The right answer was Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process.

Question 5
The right answer was Increased aortic pressure.

Question 6
The right answer was Increased ventricular volume.

Question 7
The right answer was Simple squamous.

Question 8
The right answer was Aldosterone.

Question 9
The right answer was HR and Stroke Volume.

Question 10
The right answer was Left ventricle.

Question 11
The right answer was Brachiocephalic.

Question 12
The right answer was Right subclavian.

Question 13
The right answer was Celiac artery.

Question 14
The right answer was Renal artery.

Question 15
The right answer was Mediastinal artery.

Question 16
The right answer was Deep circumflex iliac artery.

Question 17
The right answer was Subclavian vein.

Question 18
The right answer was Basilar.

Question 19
The right answer was Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure.

Question 20
The right answer was Accelerator.

Source: Test Pre Preview

1.)Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases?

UAA
AGU
AUG
UGA

2.)Which of the types of RNA is the smallest?

mRNA
tRNA
rRNA


3.)Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine?

C
T
U
G

4.)Which of the following is paired correctly?

A-G
C-G
A-U
G-T

5.)Which of the following characterizes a Western blot?

Antibody/protein hybridization
DNA/RNA combination
RNA transcription
Polymerase chain reaction

6.)Which of the following is the approximate prevalence ratio for cystic fibrosis?

1: 25,000
1: 5,000
1: 2,000
1: 800

7.)Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle?

G2
G1
S
G0

8.)Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome?

XXII
XXI
XIIX
XV

9.)Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law?

Mating between species occurs at a set rate.
Migration is a considerable factor.
Mutation occurs at the locus
Genotype selection does not occur at the locus

10.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hurler’s syndrome?

Autosomal recessive condition
Associated with delayed mental development
Spasticity
Corneal deficits

11.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Krabbe’s disease?

Autosomal recessive condition
Spasticity
Nausea
Optic nerve deficits

12.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fabry’s disease?

X-linked disease
Low levels of a-galactosidase A
Profound muscular weakness
Increased levels of ceramide trihexoside

13.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Sickle Cell Anemia?

More common in African Americans
Autosomal dominant
Mutation in b globin
Intense chronic pain

14.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Southern blot?

DNA hybridization
Use of a filter and film combination
Activated by antigen/antibody reactions
Uses a DNA sample

15.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of S-adenosyl-methionine?

May be associated phosphocreatine
Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
Aids in the transfer of methyl
Byproduct of Methionine and ATP combination

16.)Which of the following is not an activated carrier?

ATP
SAM
TPP
GMP

17.)The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH.

3
4
5
6

18.)How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose?

5
6
7
8

19.)Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)?

Melatonin
Serotonin
Creatine
Niacin

20.)Pompe’s disease is a type ___ glycogen storage disease.

I
II
III
IV


Answer Key

Question 1
The right answer was AUG.

Question 2
The right answer was tRNA.

Question 3
The right answer was G.

Question 4
The right answer was C-G.

Question 5
The right answer was Antibody/protein hybridization.

Question 6
The right answer was 1: 2,000.

Question 7
The right answer was G2.

Question 8
The right answer was XXI.

Question 9
The right answer was Genotype selection does not occur at the locus.

Question 10
The right answer was Spasticity.

Question 11
The right answer was Nausea.

Question 12
The right answer was Profound muscular weakness.

Question 13
The right answer was Autosomal dominant .

Question 14
The right answer was Activated by antigen/antibody reactions.

Question 15
The right answer was Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
.

Question 16
The right answer was GMP.

Question 17
The right answer was 3.

Question 18
The right answer was 6.

Question 19
The right answer was Creatine.

Question 20
The right answer was II.

Source: Test Pre Preview

1.)Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Rejection

2.)Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

3.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

4.)Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?

4 months
6 months
8 months
10 months

5.)Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
15-24 months

6.)Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

7.)Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

8.)Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?

Conversion disorder
Depressive reaction
Bipolar disorder
Alzheimer’s disease

9.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

10.)Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?

Babinski
Palmar
Moro
Flexion

11.)Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
24-48 months

12.)Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?

Dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Moist mouth
GI symptoms

13.)Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?

Cataplexy
Narcolepsy
Transitional sleep
REM absence

14.)Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?

Autotopagnosia
Cataplexy
Ergophobia
Anosognosia

15.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?

Nausea
Excessive perspiration
Urination
Chest pain

16.)Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

17.)Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

18.)Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

19.)Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?

Neologisms
Neolithic
Verbalism
Delusional blocking


Answer Keys:

Question 1
The right answer was rejection.

Question 2
The right answer was Compensation.

Question 3
The right answer was Theta.

Question 4
The right answer was 6 months.

Question 5
The right answer was 12-24 months.

Question 6
The right answer was Projection.

Question 7
The right answer was Rationalization.

Question 8
The right answer was Conversion disorder.

Question 9
The right answer was Beta.

Question 10
The right answer was 90.

Question 12
The right answer was 24-48 months.

Question 13
The right answer was Moist mouth.

Question 14
The right answer was Cataplexy.

Question 15
The right answer was Autotopagnosia.

Question 16
The right answer was Urination.

Question 17
The right answer was Integrity vs. Despair.

Question 18
The right answer was Generativitiy vs. Stagnation.

1.)Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Rejection

2.)Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

3.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

4.)Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?

4 months
6 months
8 months
10 months

5.)Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
15-24 months

6.)Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

7.)Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

8.)Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?

Conversion disorder
Depressive reaction
Bipolar disorder
Alzheimer’s disease

9.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

10.)Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?

Babinski
Palmar
Moro
Flexion

11.)Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
24-48 months

12.)Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?

Dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Moist mouth
GI symptoms

13.)Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?

Cataplexy
Narcolepsy
Transitional sleep
REM absence

14.)Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?

Autotopagnosia
Cataplexy
Ergophobia
Anosognosia

15.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?

Nausea
Excessive perspiration
Urination
Chest pain

16.)Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

17.)Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

18.)Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

19.)Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?

Neologisms
Neolithic
Verbalism
Delusional blocking


Answer Keys:

Question 1
The right answer was rejection.

Question 2
The right answer was Compensation.

Question 3
The right answer was Theta.

Question 4
The right answer was 6 months.

Question 5
The right answer was 12-24 months.

Question 6
The right answer was Projection.

Question 7
The right answer was Rationalization.

Question 8
The right answer was Conversion disorder.

Question 9
The right answer was Beta.

Question 10
The right answer was 90.

Question 12
The right answer was 24-48 months.

Question 13
The right answer was Moist mouth.

Question 14
The right answer was Cataplexy.

Question 15
The right answer was Autotopagnosia.

Question 16
The right answer was Urination.

Question 17
The right answer was Integrity vs. Despair.

Question 18
The right answer was Generativitiy vs. Stagnation.

Question 19
The right answer was Intimacy vs. Isolation

Source: Test Pre Preview