Showing posts with label NCLEX Practice Questions. Show all posts
Showing posts with label NCLEX Practice Questions. Show all posts

NCLEX Online Review Set 8

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21. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?

A: Following surgery

B: Upon admit

C: Within 48 hours of discharge

D: Preoperative discussion

22. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

23. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

24. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

25. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

A: 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min. , 100/70 mm Hg

B: 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg

C: 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg

D: 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

26. When you are taking a patient’s history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

A: Elavil

B: Calcitonin

C: Pergolide

D: Verapamil

27. Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?

A: Campylobacterial infection

B: Legionnaire’s disease

C: Pneumonia

D: Multiple Sclerosis

28. A patient’s chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Decreased HR

B: Paresthesias

C: Muscle weakness of the extremities

D: Migranes

29. A patient’s chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Vomiting

B: Extreme Thirst

C: Weight gain

D: Acetone breath smell

30. A patient’s chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Increased appetite

B: Vomiting

C: Fever

D: Poor tolerance of light


31. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Yersinia pestis

B: Helicobacter pyroli

C: Vibrio cholera

D: Hemophilus aegyptius

32. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Borrelia burgdorferi

B: Streptococcus pyrogens

C: Bacilus anthracis

D: Enterococcus faecalis

33. A fragile 87 year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over last 2 weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

34. A 84 year-old male has been loosing mobility and gaining weight over the last 2 months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

35. A 20 year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

36. A 28 year old male has been found wandering around in a confused pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

37. A mother is inquiring about her child’s ability to potty train. Which of the following factors is the most important aspect of toilet training?

A: The age of the child

B: The child ability to understand instruction.

C: The overall mental and physical abilities of the child.

D: Frequent attempts with positive reinforcement.

38. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?

A: This too shall pass.

B: Take the child immediately to the ER

C: Contact the Poison Control Center quickly

D: Give the child syrup of ipecac

39. A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. Which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

A: Gluteus maximus

B: Gluteus minimus

C: Vastus lateralis

D: Vastus medialis

40. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4 year-old boy who is non-verbal. This child does not have on any identification. What should the nurse do?

A: Contact the provider

B: Ask the child to write their name on paper.

C: Ask a co-worker about the identification of the child.

D: Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name.


Answer Key 21-40.

21. (B) Discharge education begins upon admit.

22. (B) Initiative vs. guilt- 3-6 years old

23. (A) Trust vs. Mistrust- 12-18 months old

24. (D) Intimacy vs. isolation- 18-35 years old

25. (B) HR and Respirations are slightly increased. BP is down.

26. (A) Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant.

27. (D) Erythromycin is used to treat conditions A-C.

28. (D) Answer choices A-C were symptoms of acute hyperkalemia.

29. (C) Weight loss would be expected.

30. (A) Loss of appetite would be expected.

31. (D) Choice A is linked to Plague, Choice B is linked to peptic ulcers, Choice C is linked to Cholera.

32. (A) Choice B is linked to Rheumatic fever, Choice C is linked to Anthrax, Choice D is linked to Endocarditis.

33. (D) A CT scan would be performed for further investigation of the hemiparesis.

34. (C) Weight gain and poor temperature tolerance indicate something may be wrong with the thyroid function.

35. (C) Blood cultures would be performed to investigate the fever and rash symptoms.

36. (A) With a history of diabetes, the first response should be to check blood sugar levels.

37. (C) Age is not the greatest factor in potty training. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child is the most important factor.

38. (C) The poison control center will have an exact plan of action for this child.

39. (C) Vastus lateralis is the most appropriate location.

40. (D) In this case you are able to determine the name of the child by the father’s statement. You should not withhold the medication from the child following identification.


 

NCLEX Online Review Set 7

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1. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. Which of the following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A: Coumadin

B: Finasteride

C: Celebrex

D: Catapress

E: Habitrol

F: Clofazimine

2. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. The history indicates photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A: Cipro

B: Sulfonamide

C: Noroxin

D: Bactrim

E: Accutane

F: Nitrodur

3. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration?

A: Sulfasalazine

B: Levodopa

C: Phenolphthalein

D: Aspirin

4. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents?

A: Corgard

B: Humulin (injection)

C: Urokinase

D: Epogen (injection)

5. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

A: IgA

B: IgD

C: IgE

D: IgG

6. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?

A: Immediately see a social worker

B: Start prophylactic AZT treatment

C: Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment

D: Seek counseling

7. A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Atherosclerosis

B: Diabetic nephropathy

C: Autonomic neuropathy

D: Somatic neuropathy

8. You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Multiple sclerosis

B: Anorexia nervosa

C: Bulimia

D: Systemic sclerosis

9. A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Diverticulosis

B: Hypercalcaemia

C: Hypocalcaemia

D: Irritable bowel syndrome

10. Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

A: RH positive, RH positive

B: RH positive, RH negative

C: RH negative, RH positive

D: RH negative, RH negative

11. A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

A: A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

B: The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

C: Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

D: The effects of PKU are reversible.

12. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

A: Onset of pulmonary edema

B: Metabolic alkalosis

C: Respiratory alkalosis

D: Parkinson’s disease type symptoms

13. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

A: Let others know about the patient’s deficits.

B: Communicate with your supervisor your patient safety concerns.

C: Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

D: Provide a secure environment for the patient.

14. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

A: Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

B: Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

C: Cough following bronchodilator utilization

D: Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.

15. A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

A: Slow pulse rate

B: Weight gain

C: Decreased systolic pressure

D: Irregular WBC lab values

16. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome?

A: Simian crease

B: Brachycephaly

C: Oily skin

D: Hypotonicity

17. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

A: Streptokinase

B: Atropine

C: Acetaminophen

D: Coumadin

18. A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acids?”

A: Green vegetables and liver

B: Yellow vegetables and red meat

C: Carrots

D: Milk

19. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?

A: S. pneumonia

B: H. influenza

C: N. meningitis

D: Cl. difficile

20. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.

A: The life span of RBC is 45 days.

B: The life span of RBC is 60 days.

C: The life span of RBC is 90 days.

D: The life span of RBC is 120 days.


Answer Key

1. (A) and (B) are both contraindicated with pregnancy.

2. (F) All of the others have can cause photosensitivity reactions.

3. (D) All of the others can cause urine discoloration.

4. (A) Corgard could be removed from the refigerator.

5. (D) IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier.

6. (B) AZT treatment is the most critical innervention.

7. (C) Autonomic neuropathy can cause inability to urinate.

8. (B) All of the clinical signs and systems point to a condition of anorexia nervosa.

9. (B) Hypercalcaemia can cause polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion.

10. (C) Rho gam prevents the production of anti-RH antibodies in the mother that has a Rh positive fetus.


11. (D) The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life.

12. (D) Aspirin overdose can lead to metabolic acidosis and cause pulmonary edema development.

13. (D) This patient’s safety is your primary concern.

14. (C) The bronchodilator will allow a more productive cough.

15. (B) Weight gain is associated with CHF and congenital heart deficits.

16. (C) The skin would be dry and not oily.

17. (A) Streptokinase is a clot busting drug and the best choice in this situation.

18. (A) Green vegetables and liver are a great source of folic acid.

19. (D) Cl. difficile has not been linked to meningitis.

20. (D) RBC’s last for 120 days in the body.

 

Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 6 : Circulatory

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1.)Prothrombin is a ____ globulin and is produced by the _____.

Alpha, Kidney
Alpha, Liver
Beta, Kidney
Beta, Liver

2.)The right coronary artery divides to form the posterior interventricular artery and the ___ artery.

Marginal
LVC
RVC
LAD

3.)Blood flowing into the cardiac veins enters the _______ next.

Coronary Sinus
Left Ventricle
Right Ventricle
Left Atrium

4.)If you are using a stethoscope and trying to detect the tricuspid valve which of the following would be the best location?

Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process
On the right side of the sternum
On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint
On the left side of the sternum near the midpoint of the sixth rib

5.)Which of the following occurs during ventricular systole?

Increased aortic pressure
Increased ventricular volume
Dup heart sound
P wave

6.)Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole?

Increased aortic pressure
Increased ventricular volume
Lub heart sound
T wave

7.)The innermost layer of a blood vessel is lined with _______ ______ cells

Simple squamous
Stratified squamous
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium

8.)Angiotension can directly cause the release of ____ from the adrenal cortex.

Renin
Aldosterone
Calcitonin
Thyroxine

9.)Cardiac output is the product of ____ and ____.

HR and Disastolic pressure
HR and Stroke Volume
HR and EF
Diastolic and Systolic pressure

10.)Pulmonary edema is most like associated with a failing _____ _____.

Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle

11.)Which of the following is the first branch off the aortic arch?

Common carotid
Brachiocephalic
Right Subclavian
Thoracic

12.)The brachiocephalic artery divides to form the right common carotid and the ____ ____ artery.

Left subclavian
Right subclavian
Left common carotid
Right thoracic artery

13.)Which of the following arteries creates the left spenic, hepatic and gastric arteries?

Left sacral artery
Celiac artery
Suprarenal artery
Phrenic artery

14.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the descending thoracic aorta?

Mediastinal artery
Renal artery
Bronchial artery
Posterior intercostals artery

15.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the abdominal aorta?

Phrenic artery
Common iliac artery
Gonadal artery
Mediastinal artery

16.)Which of the following is not considered a major branch off of the femoral artery?

Superficial pudendal arteries
Deep external pudendal arteries
Superficial circumflex iliac artery
Deep circumflex iliac artery

17.)Which of the following is not considered a tributary of the portal vein?

Inferior mesenteric vein
Splenic vein
Left gastric vein
Subclavian vein

18.)Inside the cranial cavity the vertebral arteries form the ____ artery.

Basilar
Common Carotid
MCA
PCA

19.)Pulse pressure (pp) is considered the _____.

Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure
The sum of the systolic and diastolic pressure
The inverse of the blood pressure
Half of the systolic pressure

20.)_____ nerves can be found joining the SA and AV nodes in the heart.

Accelerator
Phrenic
Thoracic
Gastric


Answer Key:

Question 1
The right answer was Alpha, Liver.

Question 2
The right answer was Marginal.

Question 3
The right answer was Coronary Sinus.

Question 4
The right answer was Within 2 inches of the xyphoid process.

Question 5
The right answer was Increased aortic pressure.

Question 6
The right answer was Increased ventricular volume.

Question 7
The right answer was Simple squamous.

Question 8
The right answer was Aldosterone.

Question 9
The right answer was HR and Stroke Volume.

Question 10
The right answer was Left ventricle.

Question 11
The right answer was Brachiocephalic.

Question 12
The right answer was Right subclavian.

Question 13
The right answer was Celiac artery.

Question 14
The right answer was Renal artery.

Question 15
The right answer was Mediastinal artery.

Question 16
The right answer was Deep circumflex iliac artery.

Question 17
The right answer was Subclavian vein.

Question 18
The right answer was Basilar.

Question 19
The right answer was Difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure.

Question 20
The right answer was Accelerator.

Source: Test Pre Preview

 

Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 5 : BioChemistry

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1.)Which of the following is the mRNA start codon in most cases?

UAA
AGU
AUG
UGA

2.)Which of the types of RNA is the smallest?

mRNA
tRNA
rRNA


3.)Which of the following is not considered a pyrimidine?

C
T
U
G

4.)Which of the following is paired correctly?

A-G
C-G
A-U
G-T

5.)Which of the following characterizes a Western blot?

Antibody/protein hybridization
DNA/RNA combination
RNA transcription
Polymerase chain reaction

6.)Which of the following is the approximate prevalence ratio for cystic fibrosis?

1: 25,000
1: 5,000
1: 2,000
1: 800

7.)Which of the following divisions of cell growth precedes Mitosis in the cell cycle?

G2
G1
S
G0

8.)Down syndrome is directly linked to a genetic abnormality of chromosome?

XXII
XXI
XIIX
XV

9.)Which of the following is a characteristic of the Hardy-Weinberg law?

Mating between species occurs at a set rate.
Migration is a considerable factor.
Mutation occurs at the locus
Genotype selection does not occur at the locus

10.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hurler’s syndrome?

Autosomal recessive condition
Associated with delayed mental development
Spasticity
Corneal deficits

11.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Krabbe’s disease?

Autosomal recessive condition
Spasticity
Nausea
Optic nerve deficits

12.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fabry’s disease?

X-linked disease
Low levels of a-galactosidase A
Profound muscular weakness
Increased levels of ceramide trihexoside

13.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of Sickle Cell Anemia?

More common in African Americans
Autosomal dominant
Mutation in b globin
Intense chronic pain

14.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Southern blot?

DNA hybridization
Use of a filter and film combination
Activated by antigen/antibody reactions
Uses a DNA sample

15.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of S-adenosyl-methionine?

May be associated phosphocreatine
Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
Aids in the transfer of methyl
Byproduct of Methionine and ATP combination

16.)Which of the following is not an activated carrier?

ATP
SAM
TPP
GMP

17.)The end product of the TCA cycle produces ____ NADH.

3
4
5
6

18.)How many ATP are required to transform pyruvate into glucose?

5
6
7
8

19.)Which of the following is not a derivative of the amino acid (Tryptophan)?

Melatonin
Serotonin
Creatine
Niacin

20.)Pompe’s disease is a type ___ glycogen storage disease.

I
II
III
IV


Answer Key

Question 1
The right answer was AUG.

Question 2
The right answer was tRNA.

Question 3
The right answer was G.

Question 4
The right answer was C-G.

Question 5
The right answer was Antibody/protein hybridization.

Question 6
The right answer was 1: 2,000.

Question 7
The right answer was G2.

Question 8
The right answer was XXI.

Question 9
The right answer was Genotype selection does not occur at the locus.

Question 10
The right answer was Spasticity.

Question 11
The right answer was Nausea.

Question 12
The right answer was Profound muscular weakness.

Question 13
The right answer was Autosomal dominant .

Question 14
The right answer was Activated by antigen/antibody reactions.

Question 15
The right answer was Considered a rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis
.

Question 16
The right answer was GMP.

Question 17
The right answer was 3.

Question 18
The right answer was 6.

Question 19
The right answer was Creatine.

Question 20
The right answer was II.

Source: Test Pre Preview

 

Free NCLEX Practice Questions Set 4 : Behavioral Science

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1.)Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Rejection

2.)Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

3.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

4.)Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?

4 months
6 months
8 months
10 months

5.)Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
15-24 months

6.)Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

7.)Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

8.)Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?

Conversion disorder
Depressive reaction
Bipolar disorder
Alzheimer’s disease

9.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

10.)Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?

Babinski
Palmar
Moro
Flexion

11.)Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
24-48 months

12.)Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?

Dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Moist mouth
GI symptoms

13.)Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?

Cataplexy
Narcolepsy
Transitional sleep
REM absence

14.)Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?

Autotopagnosia
Cataplexy
Ergophobia
Anosognosia

15.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?

Nausea
Excessive perspiration
Urination
Chest pain

16.)Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

17.)Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

18.)Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

19.)Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?

Neologisms
Neolithic
Verbalism
Delusional blocking


Answer Keys:

Question 1
The right answer was rejection.

Question 2
The right answer was Compensation.


Question 3
The right answer was Theta.

Question 4
The right answer was 6 months.

Question 5
The right answer was 12-24 months.

Question 6
The right answer was Projection.

Question 7
The right answer was Rationalization.

Question 8
The right answer was Conversion disorder.

Question 9
The right answer was Beta.

Question 10
The right answer was 90.

Question 12
The right answer was 24-48 months.

Question 13
The right answer was Moist mouth.

Question 14
The right answer was Cataplexy.

Question 15
The right answer was Autotopagnosia.

Question 16
The right answer was Urination.

Question 17
The right answer was Integrity vs. Despair.

Question 18
The right answer was Generativitiy vs. Stagnation.


1.)Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process?

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Rejection

2.)Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

3.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

4.)Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?

4 months
6 months
8 months
10 months

5.)Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
15-24 months

6.)Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

7.)Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason?

Compensation
Projection
Rationalization
Dysphoria

8.)Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?

Conversion disorder
Depressive reaction
Bipolar disorder
Alzheimer’s disease

9.)Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?

Theta
Alpha
Beta
Zeta

10.)Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?

Babinski
Palmar
Moro
Flexion

11.)Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?

5-10 months
10-14 months
12-24 months
24-48 months

12.)Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety?

Dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Moist mouth
GI symptoms

13.)Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously?

Cataplexy
Narcolepsy
Transitional sleep
REM absence

14.)Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?

Autotopagnosia
Cataplexy
Ergophobia
Anosognosia

15.)Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?

Nausea
Excessive perspiration
Urination
Chest pain

16.)Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

17.)Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

18.)Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?

Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
Integrity vs. Despair
Longevity vs. Guilt

19.)Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?

Neologisms
Neolithic
Verbalism
Delusional blocking


Answer Keys:

Question 1
The right answer was rejection.

Question 2
The right answer was Compensation.


Question 3
The right answer was Theta.

Question 4
The right answer was 6 months.

Question 5
The right answer was 12-24 months.

Question 6
The right answer was Projection.

Question 7
The right answer was Rationalization.

Question 8
The right answer was Conversion disorder.

Question 9
The right answer was Beta.

Question 10
The right answer was 90.

Question 12
The right answer was 24-48 months.

Question 13
The right answer was Moist mouth.

Question 14
The right answer was Cataplexy.

Question 15
The right answer was Autotopagnosia.

Question 16
The right answer was Urination.

Question 17
The right answer was Integrity vs. Despair.

Question 18
The right answer was Generativitiy vs. Stagnation.

Question 19
The right answer was Intimacy vs. Isolation

Source: Test Pre Preview